JAMB Use of English CBT Questions and Answers 2027: 60+ Likely UTME Practice Questions

To prepare effectively for JAMB Use of English you, needs to go beyond just studying grammar rules or practicing random questions. Candidates should understand the areas covered in the syllabus, develop a robust reading and vocabulary skills. It is important to learn how to answer JAMB Use of English multiple-choice questions correctly under the CBT examination conditions.

This write-up explains what the candidates can generally expect in the JAMB Use of English and offers 40 original questions with answers and explanations. Additionally, it covers the common mistakes, practical ways to prepare, more practice questions and how to cross-verify information.

Important: The questions in this article are independently created for practice. They are not leaked JAMB questions, the official JAMB examination questions, or the substitute for the official JAMB syllabus.

The Use of English is a mandatory subject in the Unified Tertiary Matriculation Examination (UTME), for every candidate regardless of the course of study they propose to pursue. As per the materials provided by JAMB for the 2026 UTME, candidates take the Use of English exam alongside three other UTME subjects in this examination. The official structure of UTME shows that the Use of English contains 60 multiple-choice questions and each of the other three subjects consists of 40 questions, hence 180 questions in total.

This subject is designed to test the candidates’ ability to communicate effectively in both written and spoken English and use the English language effectively for learning. In this article, we will explore the details of what the JAMB Use of English tests, the syllabus, and the requirements.

Table of Contents

What Does JAMB Use of English Test?

The official syllabus breaks the subject down into the following three general areas:

Comprehension/Summary
Lexis and Structure
Oral Forms

The official syllabus offers the objectives and areas of the content for each of these sections. It is recommended that the candidates consult the JAMB’s Integrated Brochure and Syllabus System (IBASS) for the latest syllabus rather than refer to unofficial summaries.

Key Areas in the Official JAMB Syllabus

Comprehension and Summary

The candidates may be tested based on their comprehension of certain passages including the identification of major ideas, interpretation of expressions and deduction of implications; recognizing the attitude or intentions of a writer; and understanding different forms of writing and comprehension including the cloze passage.

Lexis and Structure

This section tests vocabulary and structural competence. Depending on the question types, the candidates may be required to identify the appropriate word, understand the relationship between words, recognize grammatical competence, or choose the best fit expressions for a given sentence.

Oral Forms

The oral English questions may test different aspects of the pronunciation, stress, and intonation as defined by the official syllabus.

A Note About Recommended or Prescribed Texts

JAMB may require a reading text or any other examination material for a specific UTME year. Candidates should not presume that a text which was used in a previous year is the prescribed text for the examination. Always cross-check with the current official JAMB syllabus, registration information, or other official announcements before studying any supposedly prescribed text.

For official information, use the JAMB official website and the JAMB IBASS platform.

40 JAMB Use of English Objectives Questions and Answers

The following questions are the original practice materials that were created for the common skills tested in the subject. They are not extracted from a live or a confidential JAMB examination.

Section A: Lexis and Structure

Question 1

Choose the word that best completes the sentence:

The principal advised the students to _____ attention to the instructions.

A. pay
B. give
C. make
D. take

Answer: A. pay

Explanation: The correct collocation is to pay attention to something.

Question 2

If Musa had studied harder, he _____ the examination.

A. will pass
B. would have passed
C. would pass
D. has passed

Answer: B. would have passed

Explanation: This is a third conditional sentence describing an unreal situation in the past.

Question 3

The woman, together with her children, _____ arrived.

A. have
B. are
C. has
D. were

Answer: C. has

Explanation: The main subject is the woman, which is singular. The phrase together with her children does not change the number of the main subject.

Question 4

The manager insisted _____ seeing the documents.

A. in
B. on
C. at
D. for

Answer: B. on

Explanation: The correct expression is insist on doing something.

Question 5

Neither the teacher nor the students _____ aware of the change.

A. was
B. is
C. were
D. has been

Answer: C. were

Explanation: With neither…nor, the verb commonly agrees with the subject closest to it. Here, students is plural.

Question 6

The chairman’s speech was so _____ that everyone understood his position.

A. obscure
B. vague
C. clear
D. confusing

Answer: C. clear

Explanation: A speech that everyone understands is clear.

Question 7

She prefers reading novels _____ watching television.

A. than
B. to
C. over
D. from

Answer: B. to

Explanation: The standard structure is prefer X to Y.

Question 8

By this time tomorrow, we _____ our journey.

A. complete
B. completed
C. will have completed
D. have completed

Answer: C. will have completed

Explanation: The future perfect tense describes an action that will be completed before a specified future time.

Question 9

The suspect denied _____ the money.

A. to steal
B. stealing
C. steal
D. to stealing

Answer: B. stealing

Explanation: The verb deny is normally followed by a gerund (-ing form).

Question 10

The expression to beat about the bush means to

A. speak directly.
B. avoid discussing the main point.
C. work very hard.
D. become angry.

Answer: B. avoid discussing the main point

Explanation: Someone who beats about the bush avoids getting directly to the important issue.

Question 11

The new policy will _____ significant changes in the organisation.

A. effect
B. affect
C. infect
D. defect

Answer: B. affect

Explanation: Affect is usually a verb meaning to influence. Effect is more commonly a noun meaning a result.

Question 12

Hardly had the meeting started _____ the lights went out.

A. than
B. when
C. while
D. since

Answer: B. when

Explanation: The standard structure is hardly…when.

Question 13

The teacher asked us to submit _____ assignments before Friday.

A. there
B. they’re
C. their
D. our

Answer: D. our

Explanation: The speaker is referring to assignments belonging to us, so the possessive pronoun our is appropriate.

Question 14

The committee _____ its report yesterday.

A. submit
B. submitted
C. submitting
D. have submitting

Answer: B. submitted

Explanation: The sentence refers to a completed action in the past, so the simple past tense is required.

Question 15

No sooner had she entered the room _____ the phone rang.

A. when
B. than
C. then
D. and

Answer: B. than

Explanation: The standard expression is no sooner…than.

Question 16

The candidate was praised for his _____ response to the question.

A. intelligent
B. intelligence
C. intelligently
D. intelligible

Answer: A. intelligent

Explanation: An adjective is needed to describe the noun response.

Question 17

The workers demanded that the management _____ their salaries immediately.

A. pays
B. paid
C. pay
D. paying

Answer: C. pay

Explanation: After verbs such as demand, formal English can use the subjunctive form pay.

Question 18

Although the road was bad, we arrived _____ time.

A. at
B. in
C. on
D. by

Answer: B. in

Explanation: Arrive in time means to arrive early enough for something. On time means at the scheduled time.

Question 19

The old building was _____ because it was no longer safe.

A. demolished
B. repaired
C. constructed
D. decorated

Answer: A. demolished

Explanation: A building that is intentionally pulled down is demolished.

Question 20

Choose the word nearest in meaning to diligent.

A. lazy
B. hardworking
C. careless
D. dishonest

Answer: B. hardworking

Explanation: A diligent person works carefully and consistently.

Section B: Comprehension and Interpretation

Read the passage below and answer Questions 21–25.

Many students believe that studying for long hours automatically leads to better results. However, effective learning depends not only on the amount of time spent studying but also on concentration, understanding and regular revision. A student who studies actively for two focused hours may learn more than one who spends five distracted hours with a book.

Question 21

The main idea of the passage is that

A. students should study for at least five hours daily.
B. effective study involves quality as well as time.
C. long hours of study are always unnecessary.
D. books are distracting to students.

Answer: B. effective study involves quality as well as time

Explanation: The passage emphasises that productive learning depends on concentration, understanding and revision, not merely the number of hours spent studying.

Question 22

The passage suggests that a distracted student is likely to

A. learn efficiently.
B. benefit from longer study sessions automatically.
C. learn less effectively.
D. avoid revision completely.

Answer: C. learn less effectively

Explanation: The comparison between focused and distracted study shows that distraction reduces learning effectiveness.

Question 23

The word focused as used in the passage most nearly means

A. concentrated.
B. confused.
C. delayed.
D. relaxed.

Answer: A. concentrated

Explanation: A focused student gives full attention to the task.

Question 24

Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. Every student learns at exactly the same speed.
B. Revision can contribute to effective learning.
C. Students should never study for long hours.
D. Concentration is unimportant during study.

Answer: B. Revision can contribute to effective learning

Explanation: Revision is specifically identified as one of the factors involved in effective learning.

Question 25

The writer’s attitude to effective study can best be described as

A. practical.
B. hostile.
C. humorous.
D. indifferent.

Answer: A. practical

Explanation: The writer gives a realistic explanation of how students can study more effectively.

Section C: More Grammar and Vocabulary Practice

Question 26

Each of the players _____ given a certificate.

A. were
B. was
C. have
D. are

Answer: B. was

Explanation: Each is singular and takes a singular verb.

Question 27

If I _____ you, I would apologise.

A. am
B. was
C. were
D. have been

Answer: C. were

Explanation: In formal conditional expressions, were is traditionally used for hypothetical situations: If I were you…

Question 28

The police officer asked the driver to _____ his vehicle.

A. park
B. parks
C. parked
D. parking

Answer: A. park

Explanation: After asked someone to, the base form of the verb is used.

Question 29

Her explanation was _____ than I expected.

A. convincing
B. more convincing
C. most convincing
D. convincingly

Answer: B. more convincing

Explanation: The word than signals a comparison, so the comparative form is needed.

Question 30

The students were asked to _____ the information carefully.

A. analyse
B. analysis
C. analytical
D. analysed

Answer: A. analyse

Explanation: A verb is needed after to.

Question 31

The phrase once in a blue moon means

A. every day.
B. very rarely.
C. at night.
D. unexpectedly.

Answer: B. very rarely

Explanation: The idiom refers to something that happens infrequently.

Question 32

The medicine had no noticeable _____ on the patient.

A. affect
B. effect
C. effective
D. affecting

Answer: B. effect

Explanation: The phrase requires a noun meaning result or consequence: effect.

Question 33

The news _____ surprising to everyone.

A. were
B. are
C. was
D. have

Answer: C. was

Explanation: News takes a singular verb despite ending in -s.

Question 34

The girl _____ father is a doctor won the competition.

A. who
B. whom
C. whose
D. which

Answer: C. whose

Explanation: Whose shows possession.

Question 35

He is one of the best players _____ the team.

A. at
B. on
C. with
D. by

Answer: B. on

Explanation: We normally say a player is on a team.

Section D: Oral English and Language Awareness

Question 36

Which word has a different vowel sound from the others?

A. seat
B. beat
C. heat
D. said

Answer: D. said

Explanation: Seat, beat and heat contain the long /iː/ sound, while said has a different vowel sound.

Question 37

Which word is stressed on the second syllable?

A. TAble
B. REcord (noun)
C. reLAX
D. WINdow

Answer: C. reLAX

Explanation: The stress in relax falls on the second syllable.

Question 38

Which word contains a silent letter?

A. know
B. table
C. market
D. river

Answer: A. know

Explanation: The letter k is silent in know.

Question 39

Which pair of words is most likely distinguished by their initial consonant sounds?

A. fan and van
B. seat and seat
C. book and book
D. play and play

Answer: A. fan and van

Explanation: The initial sounds /f/ and /v/ distinguish the two words.

Question 40

In spoken communication, intonation can help a speaker

A. remove all grammatical errors automatically.
B. communicate attitude and meaning.
C. avoid using words.
D. replace written language completely.

Answer: B. communicate attitude and meaning

Explanation: Changes in pitch and tone can help communicate meaning, emphasis, attitude and the type of utterance.

Vowel Sounds

Question 41

Choose the word that has the same vowel sound as the vowel sound in seat.

A. said
B. sit
C. beat
D. set

Answer: C. beat

Explanation: Seat and beat contain the long vowel sound /iː/.

Question 42

Choose the word with a different vowel sound from the others.

A. cup
B. cut
C. put
D. sun

Answer: C. put

Explanation: Cup, cut, and sun commonly contain the /ʌ/ sound, while put contains /ʊ/.

Question 43

The vowel sound in cat is also found in

A. cart
B. cut
C. hat
D. heart

Answer: C. hat

Explanation: Cat and hat contain the same short vowel sound /æ/.

Question 44

Choose the word with the same vowel sound as bird.

A. beard
B. word
C. board
D. bad

Answer: B. word

Explanation: In standard British pronunciation, bird and word contain the /ɜː/ vowel sound.

Consonant Sounds and Clusters

Question 45

Which word begins with the same consonant sound as chair?

A. cheer
B. share
C. gear
D. jail

Answer: A. cheer

Explanation: Chair and cheer begin with the consonant sound /tʃ/.

Question 46

Choose the word whose initial consonant sound is different from the others.

A. phone
B. photograph
C. physics
D. phrase

Answer: D. phrase

Explanation: Phone, photograph, and physics begin with /f/. Phrase begins with /fr/, a consonant cluster.

Question 47

The underlined sound in think is also found in

A. this
B. then
C. bath
D. those

Answer: C. bath

Explanation: Think and bath contain the voiceless /θ/ sound.

Question 48

Which pair of words begins with the same consonant sound?

A. judge and giant
B. goat and giant
C. cat and city
D. house and honest

Answer: A. judge and giant

Explanation: Judge and giant begin with the /dʒ/ sound. The same letter can represent different sounds in English, so candidates should focus on pronunciation rather than spelling.

Rhymes and Homophones

Question 49

Which word rhymes with light?

A. late
B. let
C. fight
D. lot

Answer: C. fight

Explanation: Light and fight end with the same vowel and final consonant sound.

Question 50

Choose the word that is a homophone of sea.

A. see
B. say
C. sigh
D. sew

Answer: A. see

Explanation: Homophones are words with the same pronunciation but different meanings or spellings. Sea and see are pronounced alike.

Question 51

Which pair consists of homophones?

A. hear and hair
B. hear and here
C. high and height
D. food and foot

Answer: B. hear and here

Explanation: Hear and here have the same pronunciation in standard English but different meanings and spellings.

Question 52

Which word does not rhyme with the others?

A. rain
B. train
C. gain
D. grainy

Answer: D. grainy

Explanation: Rain, train, and gain share the same ending sound /eɪn/, while grainy does not rhyme completely with them.

Word Stress

Question 53

Which syllable receives the stress in the word education?

A. first syllable
B. second syllable
C. third syllable
D. fourth syllable

Answer: C. third syllable

Explanation: The word is commonly pronounced ed-u-CA-tion, with the main stress on CA.

Question 54

Choose the word stressed on the first syllable.

A. reLAX
B. beGIN
C. TAble
D. aRRIVE

Answer: C. TAble

Explanation: The stress in table falls on the first syllable.

Question 55

Which word has its stress on the second syllable?

A. DOCtor
B. WINdow
C. beLIEVE
D. MOney

Answer: C. beLIEVE

Explanation: Believe is stressed on the second syllable.

Question 56

In which word does a change in stress help distinguish a noun from a verb?

A. water
B. record
C. pencil
D. market

Answer: B. record

Explanation: In standard usage, REcord is commonly a noun, while reCORD is commonly a verb. Stress can therefore affect the grammatical role and meaning of some English words.

Emphatic Stress and Meaning

Question 57

Consider the statement:

“I said Musa borrowed the book.”

If the speaker places emphatic stress on I, the speaker is most likely emphasising that

A. Musa did not borrow the book.
B. someone else, not the speaker, said it.
C. the speaker personally made the statement.
D. the book was not borrowed.

Answer: C. the speaker personally made the statement

Explanation: Stress on I contrasts the speaker with other possible people who might have made the statement.

Question 58

Consider the statement:

“Ada bought a new dress.”

If the word new is strongly emphasised, the speaker is contrasting the dress with

A. an old or previously used dress.
B. a different person.
C. a different shop.
D. a different colour only.

Answer: A. an old or previously used dress

Explanation: Emphatic stress on new highlights the idea that the dress is new rather than old or previously used.

Question 59

In the sentence “Chika submitted the assignment yesterday,” stressing yesterday would most likely emphasise

A. who submitted the assignment.
B. what was submitted.
C. when the assignment was submitted.
D. where it was submitted.

Answer: C. when the assignment was submitted

Explanation: Emphatic stress can draw attention to the particular information the speaker wants to highlight. Here, stressing yesterday focuses on time.

Question 60

Consider the question:

“Did Emeka travel to Lagos?”

Which word should receive emphatic stress if the speaker wants to contrast Lagos with another destination?

A. Did
B. Emeka
C. travel
D. Lagos

Answer: D. Lagos

Explanation: Stressing Lagos highlights the destination and can imply a contrast with another place, such as Abuja or Enugu.

Answer Summary

For quick revision, the answers are:

1–10: A, B, C, B, C, C, B, C, B, B
11–20: B, B, D, B, A, A, C, B, A, B
21–30: B, C, A, B, A, B, C, A, B, A
31–40: B, B, C, C, B, D, C, A, A, B

41–50: C, C, C, B, A, D, C, A, C, A
51–60: B, D, C, C, C, B, C, A, C, D

Additional JAMB Use of English Practice Questions

Try these questions before checking the answers.

Practice Question 1

The lecturer advised the students to _____ their notes regularly.

A. revise
B. revision
C. revised
D. revising

Answer: A. revise

Practice Question 2

She has lived in Abuja _____ 2022.

A. for
B. since
C. from
D. during

Answer: B. since

Practice Question 3

Choose the option closest in meaning to reluctant.

A. willing
B. unwilling
C. excited
D. careless

Answer: B. unwilling

Practice Question 4

The teacher said, “You have done well.” The statement expresses

A. a threat.
B. praise.
C. a warning.
D. a question.

Answer: B. praise

Practice Question 5

Neither Ade nor his brother _____ at home.

A. are
B. were
C. is
D. have

Answer: C. is

A Practical JAMB Use of English Study Plan

Week 1: Know your weak spots

Brush up on the syllabus.

Take a practice test and see what areas you need to focus on, including vocabulary, grammar, and comprehension.

Week 2: Master grammar and vocabulary skills

Learn grammatical constructions and vocabulary through practice and exposure (reading) rather than rote memorization or random lists.

Week 3: Focus on Comprehension

Improve comprehension by practicing passage and question drills, including main idea, detail, inference, and vocabulary in context, and understanding the nuances of the language.

Week 4: Review Oral forms and mixed questions

Practice and review other oral forms such as pronunciation and stress, among others, as specified in the JAMB syllabus.

Final week: Mixed questions practice

Do mixed practice tasters under timed conditions and always remember to review errors and weak areas rather than focusing on your strengths.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Is Use of English mandatory in JAMB?

Yes, according to JAMB’s official UTME guidelines, Use of English will always be mandatory for all UTME candidates. Each candidate must also offer three additional subjects from the list of available ones depending on the course of their choice and its requirements.

How many questions are in JAMB Use of English?

Based on JAMB’s official 2026 UTME guidelines, JAMB Use of English has 60 multiple-choice questions. However, every candidate should cross-check this information with the official guidelines corresponding to their examination year.

What should I study for JAMB Use of English?

The first thing you should do is review the official syllabus. It will give you a good idea of the topics and other areas you should cover for the JAMB examination. Its main sections include: Comprehension/Summary, Lexis and Structure, and Oral Forms with specific objectives under each of them.

Should I only use past questions to prepare for JAMB Use of English?

Not all the time. While past questions can be useful in understanding the trends and common areas of weakness in JAMB Use of English, it is essential that you also review the official syllabus and the recommended materials to get a deeper knowledge of the language and the language examination.

How can I improve my JAMB Use of English score?

Instead of learning random topics, focus on understanding the JAMB Use of English syllabus. In addition, it is always important to practice. Read more, practice grammar constructions, do comprehension and other relevant question drills. Review your mistakes, focus more on your weak areas, and do some timed Computer-Based Test (CBT) practice.

How can I know if a JAMB Use of English study material is trustworthy?

A reliable JAMB Use of English study material should have the ability to differentiate between official and unofficial material, highlight the areas that aren’t based on evidence, and refrain from making unsubstantiated claims and promises, such as a one-month JAMB Use of English score guarantee or giving away past questions.

Final Tips for Passing JAMB Use of English Examination

As you prepare for the JAMB Use of English examination:

Make sure to review the syllabus again.
Do lots of practice questions.
Keep track of your mistakes and review them.
Read questions thoroughly before selecting an answer.
Avoid spending too much time on one question, especially during a practice test.
Practice reading faster but still understand what you are reading.

Always check the official JAMB website for the latest news and announcements on the day of the examination.

Conclusion

To summarize, the key to passing JAMB Use of English lies in having the right knowledge of language and its structures. It is always essential to invest time in studying and learning the language as a whole. The above syllabus and study plan will be beneficial to you in your JAMB preparation journey as long as you combine it with other relevant reading materials and a bit of practice.

The 40 questions provided here are only a guideline; avoid getting fixated on them or believing that JAMB will only ask you those questions. And finally, it is essential to understand how and why particular questions are asked instead of memorizing answers and patterns.

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